Function update

A gentleman from here helped me to write a function to convert oracle
date to a MS Sql date.
Here is the link
http://groups.google.com/group/micr...r />
8Jm9ADFUU
Yr6IuaVp8r6Fxhin3IJmS3764Q
The previous function you wrote
CREATE FUNCTION dbo.to_date
(@.dt VARCHAR(50), @.dt_format VARCHAR(50))
RETURNS DATETIME
AS
BEGIN
RETURN
CONVERT(DATETIME,
CONVERT(CHAR(12),
CAST(
SUBSTRING(@.dt,PATINDEX('%YYYY%',@.dt_form
at),4)+
SUBSTRING(@.dt,PATINDEX('%MM%',@.dt_format
),2)+
SUBSTRING(@.dt,PATINDEX('%DD%',@.dt_format
),2) AS DATETIME)
,0)+
SUBSTRING(@.dt,PATINDEX('%HH%',@.dt_format
),2)+':'+
SUBSTRING(@.dt,PATINDEX('%MI%',@.dt_format
),2)+':'+
SUBSTRING(@.dt,PATINDEX('%SS%',@.dt_format
),2)+' '+
SUBSTRING(@.dt,PATINDEX('%AM%',@.dt_format
),2),9)
END
works for TO_Date( '12/27/1996 03:48:26 PM', 'MM/DD/YYYY HH:MI:SS AM')
I would like to modify your function for the data below
to_date('05/31/2000 10:17:22', 'MM/DD/YYYY HH24:MI:SS')
Can you help me to modify the function to work with the new format.
Thanks.Thanks. I figured it out. simple solution to just Return
convert(datetime,@.dt) without all the complexity.

Function to Convert Char to Hexadecimal

Hi,
I'm looking for a function to convert a character to hexadecimal. E.g., 7 ->
37
Can anyone help pls ?
TIA !Desmond wrote:
> Hi,
> I'm looking for a function to convert a character to hexadecimal. E.g., 7
->
> 37
> Can anyone help pls ?
> TIA !
This works for the ASCII characters (0-255):
DECLARE @.c CHAR(1);
SET @.c = '7';
PRINT
SUBSTRING('0123456789ABCDEF',ASCII(@.c)/16+1,1)+
SUBSTRING('0123456789ABCDEF',ASCII(@.c)%1
6+1,1);
David Portas, SQL Server MVP
Whenever possible please post enough code to reproduce your problem.
Including CREATE TABLE and INSERT statements usually helps.
State what version of SQL Server you are using and specify the content
of any error messages.
SQL Server Books Online:
http://msdn2.microsoft.com/library/ms130214(en-US,SQL.90).aspx
--|||I'd created the function as below :
CREATE FUNCTION fn_Ascii2Hex (@.InputAscii varchar(2))
RETURNS int
AS
BEGIN
return SUBSTRING('0123456789ABCDEF',ASCII(@.Inpu
tAscii)/16+1,1) +
SUBSTRING('0123456789ABCDEF',ASCII(@.Inpu
tAscii)%16+1,1);
END
However, I got :
Server: Msg 195, Level 15, State 10, Line 1
'fn_Ascii2Hex' is not a recognized function name.
when I try to test the function using "select fn_Ascii2Hex(f1) from tab1;"
f1 is a varchar(2) column.
Advice please. Tia.
"David Portas" wrote:

> Desmond wrote:
> This works for the ASCII characters (0-255):
> DECLARE @.c CHAR(1);
> SET @.c = '7';
> PRINT
> SUBSTRING('0123456789ABCDEF',ASCII(@.c)/16+1,1)+
> SUBSTRING('0123456789ABCDEF',ASCII(@.c)%1
6+1,1);
> --
> David Portas, SQL Server MVP
> Whenever possible please post enough code to reproduce your problem.
> Including CREATE TABLE and INSERT statements usually helps.
> State what version of SQL Server you are using and specify the content
> of any error messages.
> SQL Server Books Online:
> http://msdn2.microsoft.com/library/ms130214(en-US,SQL.90).aspx
> --
>|||did you try prefixing your function call with the owner name?
i.e.
select dbo.fn_Ascii2Hex(f1) from tab1
"Desmond" <Desmond@.discussions.microsoft.com> wrote in message
news:2CA29BBC-7988-4FD2-BA01-63AC829E943E@.microsoft.com...
> I'd created the function as below :
> CREATE FUNCTION fn_Ascii2Hex (@.InputAscii varchar(2))
> RETURNS int
> AS
> BEGIN
> return SUBSTRING('0123456789ABCDEF',ASCII(@.Inpu
tAscii)/16+1,1) +
> SUBSTRING('0123456789ABCDEF',ASCII(@.Inpu
tAscii)%16+1,1);
> END
> However, I got :
> Server: Msg 195, Level 15, State 10, Line 1
> 'fn_Ascii2Hex' is not a recognized function name.
> when I try to test the function using "select fn_Ascii2Hex(f1) from tab1;"
> f1 is a varchar(2) column.
> Advice please. Tia.
> "David Portas" wrote:
>
E.g., 7 ->|||Oh ! Now it works after I prefix it with dbo !
Many thanks Jims !
"Jim Underwood" wrote:

> did you try prefixing your function call with the owner name?
> i.e.
> select dbo.fn_Ascii2Hex(f1) from tab1
> "Desmond" <Desmond@.discussions.microsoft.com> wrote in message
> news:2CA29BBC-7988-4FD2-BA01-63AC829E943E@.microsoft.com...
> E.g., 7 ->
>
>

Function to Convert Amount to Words for Check Printing

I am thinking someone out there must have already developed this....

I am using Report Services to generate checks and need to convert the $ amount into words on the "Pay To" line.

I searched Google and found a couple of VB/ASP routines that do this, but I would need to do it via a SQL Proc since the reporter does not provide the capability to reference and/or call custom VB functions from within.

Does anyone have / know of SQL function that may be publicly available or are willing to share that does this or perhaps can suggest a better way to handle?

Thanks.

If you use SQL Server Reporting Services, then you could add VB Code functions and then use it in your Expressions.

Also you could create .NET Stored procedures/user defined functions and use it in you Transact-SQL code.

|||

It is absolutely amazing. Just by typing in 'sql function amount to words' into the Google? search bar, I got back dozens of hits, these look like good possibilities.

http://www.novicksoftware.com/udfofweek/Vol1/T-SQL-UDF-Volume-1-Number-46-NumberToWords.htm
http://www.devx.com/vb2themax/Tip/19053
http://code.filehungry.com/product/languages/sql/miscellaneous/123_tsql_functions

Google? is your friend...|||

Thanks. I figured out that even though the project explorer didn't list class as a new type of item which could be added, I could add a class to the reports project via the menu.

Appreciate your help,

Annette

|||

Funny how I did exactly the same Google search and didn't get the same results (or perhaps they were not listed on the first few pages I checked (there were 10 pages of results).

Google is definitely our friend and so are people like yourself who take the time to answer these posts.

Thank you,

Annette

Function to convert a 'date range' to table of starting and ending

I have a table that contains two fields: effectiveFrom, effectiveTo.
The time elapsed between these day could be greater than one year.
I would like to develop a UDF that would convert these dates into a
table of values. For example, if the dates are 7/1/03 and 4/1/06 the
resulting table would look like:
startingDate endingDate
07/01/03 12/31/03
01/01/04 12/31/04
01/01/05 12/31/05
01/01/06 04/01/06
I am confident that I can do this in a stored procedure, but I'm having
difficulty in a table-set UDF.
Suggestions appreciated.
Craig BuchananAdi-
Not exactly what I was looking for, but useful in other situations.
Thanks a lot for your response.
Craig
Adi wrote:
> You can do it this way:
> create function ShowDates (@.StartDate smalldatetime, @.EndDate
> smalldatetime)
> returns @.DatesTable table (DateCol smalldatetime)
> as
> begin
> while @.startDate <= @.EndDate
> BEGIN
> insert into @.DatesTable (DateCol) values (@.StartDate)
> set @.StartDate = dateadd(dd,1, @.StartDate)
> END
> return
> END
> If you are using SQL Server 2005, then you can use recursive CTE to do
> the same thing
>|||Razvan-
Perfect! Thanks a lot.
Craig Buchanan
Razvan Socol wrote:
> Hello, Craig
> You can use this function (after you give it a better name):
> CREATE FUNCTION YourFunctionName(
> @.EffectiveFrom datetime,
> @.EffectiveTo datetime
> )
> RETURNS @.Result TABLE (
> StartingDate datetime NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
> EndingDate datetime NOT NULL UNIQUE,
> CHECK (startingDate<=endingDate)
> ) AS BEGIN
> WHILE YEAR(@.EffectiveFrom)<YEAR(@.EffectiveTo) BEGIN
> DECLARE @.EndOfYear datetime
> SET @.EndOfYear=DATEADD(year,DATEDIFF(year,0,
@.EffectiveFrom)+1,0)-1
> INSERT INTO @.Result VALUES (@.EffectiveFrom, @.EndOfYear)
> SET @.EffectiveFrom=@.EndOfYear+1
> END
> IF @.EffectiveFrom<=@.EffectiveTo BEGIN
> INSERT INTO @.Result VALUES (@.EffectiveFrom, @.EffectiveTo)
> END
> RETURN
> END
> Razvan
>|||Uri-
Thanks for the reply. Not exactly what I needed, but I can use this in
another situation.
Thanks,
Craig
Uri Dimant wrote:
> Try this one
> CREATE FUNCTION fn_dates(@.from AS DATETIME, @.to AS DATETIME)
> RETURNS @.Dates TABLE(dt DATETIME NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY)
> AS
> BEGIN
> DECLARE @.rc AS INT
> SET @.rc = 1
> INSERT INTO @.Dates VALUES(@.from)
> WHILE @.from + @.rc * 2 - 1 <= @.to
> BEGIN
> INSERT INTO @.Dates
> SELECT dt + @.rc FROM @.Dates
> SET @.rc = @.rc * 2
> END
> INSERT INTO @.Dates
> SELECT dt + @.rc FROM @.Dates
> WHERE dt + @.rc <= @.to
> RETURN
> END
> GO
> SELECT dt FROM fn_dates('20060101', '20060130')
>
> "Craig Buchanan" <user@.example.net> wrote in message
> news:OAAuwYKMGHA.2992@.tk2msftngp13.phx.gbl...
>

Function results

I am trying to convert a string value, from a parameter field, into a date t
o
insert into a SQL2005 db smalldatetime field. The function returns a bit
value, which I test by using the isdate function, and if true convert this t
o
a smalldatetime value, else I set to null.
I get error that "Syntax incorrect at @.test".
What is incorrect about what I am trying to do'
...
DECLARE @.RecNumber bigint,
@.AGM1 smalldatetime,
@.AGM2 smalldatetime,
@.SDt smalldatetime,
@.Test bit
SET NOCOUNT ON;
@.test = dbo.fn_testdate(@.Adv_Met1) ***is something wrong here?
if @.test = 1 then
@.AGM1 = convert(varchar(10),@.Adv_Met1,101)
else
@.AGM1 = null
end if
Any help is appreciated.@.test = dbo.fn_testdate(@.Adv_Met1) ***is something wrong here?
Yes, there is! This is not VBScript, you need to use SET or SELECT
SET @.test = dbo.fn_testdate(@.Adv_Met1);
SELECT @.test = dbo.fn_testdate(@.Adv_Met1);
"sparty1022" <sparty1022@.discussions.microsoft.com> wrote in message
news:ABD935E6-40A8-4F73-9B12-D8B458D824F8@.microsoft.com...
>I am trying to convert a string value, from a parameter field, into a date
>to
> insert into a SQL2005 db smalldatetime field. The function returns a bit
> value, which I test by using the isdate function, and if true convert this
> to
> a smalldatetime value, else I set to null.
> I get error that "Syntax incorrect at @.test".
> What is incorrect about what I am trying to do'
> ...
> DECLARE @.RecNumber bigint,
> @.AGM1 smalldatetime,
> @.AGM2 smalldatetime,
> @.SDt smalldatetime,
> @.Test bit
> SET NOCOUNT ON;
> @.test = dbo.fn_testdate(@.Adv_Met1) ***is something wrong here?
> if @.test = 1 then
> @.AGM1 = convert(varchar(10),@.Adv_Met1,101)
> else
> @.AGM1 = null
> end if
> Any help is appreciated.|||> if @.test = 1 then
> @.AGM1 = convert(varchar(10),@.Adv_Met1,101)
> else
> @.AGM1 = null
> end if
Also a bunch of problems here. I'm going to assume you come from a VB or
VBScript background?
IF @.Test = 1 -- there is no THEN with IF in T-SQL
SET @.AGM1 = ... -- again, need SET or SELECT
ELSE -- this line was okay!
SET @.AGM1 = NULL -- you don't really need to do this though, it is
already NULL!
-- END IF -- there is no such thing as END IF in T-SQL
A more structured way, and my prefered way, if you really needed the ELSE
clause, would be:
IF @.Test = 1
BEGIN
SET @.AGM1 = ...
END
ELSE
BEGIN
SET @.AGM1 = NULL
END
While it makes the code more verbose, I see two benefits:
(1) you really know where the boundaries of the conditional are, unless your
indenting / coding conventions are so bad that a BEGIN/END struct don't
help.
(2) if you need to add more statements to the result of a conditional,
you're already set. I find the lazier syntax leads to unexpected behavior,
not sure if people coming from lisp or cobol expect indentation and white
space to mean more than the code itself, but they can't seem to understand
why the following always prints 'bar' no matter what the value of @.foo:
DECLARE @.foo TINYINT;
SET @.foo = 2;
IF @.foo = 1
PRINT 'foo';
PRINT 'bar'; -- they expect this to run
-- with BEGIN / END it would be much more intuitive
IF @.foo = 2
PRINT 'blat';|||>> I am trying to convert a string value, from a parameter field, into a date to insert int
o a SQL2005 db smalldatetime field [sic] The function returns a bit [sic] value, which I te
st by using the isdate function, and if true [sic] convert this to a smal
ldatetime value, else I set to null. <<
Your whole approach is wrong. Columns are not fields -- nothing alike.
Formatting of data is done in the front end and not in the database.
Good SQL do not write with BIT data since it is too low-level, avoid
BIGINT since it is absurdly large and avoid the proprietary
SMALLDATETIME type. SQL has no BOOLEAN data types. The ISO-11179
Standard prohibits that silly "fn-" affix on name. The use of numbers
in a data element name are a sign of repeating groups and 1NF
violations.
And you are full of syntax and conceptual errors in your effort to
mimic a non-SQL procedural language. Why did you use CONVERT()? To
get a string!! Temporal datatypes do not exist in the 3GL language you
are trying to mimci and you do not understand them. That is too
abstract, so you nee to see a picture.
Why did you use IF-THEN_ELSE constructs? Because you do not understand
CASE expressions. You do not understand declarative programming, so
you avoid it with the proprietary 20+ year old T-SQL 4GL instead.
If you must do this kind of kludging, try something like this:
SET @.agm = CAST (@.adv_met1 AS DATETIME);
Let the CAST() catch the errors then handle them. I also hope you know
about ISO-8601 formats for temporal data.|||It seems like your functions 'should' be doing the test and the conversion a
nd handing you back the date value you desire. Something like this:
CREATE FUNCTION dbo.fn_testdate
( @.StringDateToConvert as varchar(25) )
RETURNS datetime
AS
IF isdate( @.StringDateToConvert )
RETURN convert( datetime, @.StringDateToConvert, 101 )
ELSE
RETURN NULL
GO
This eliminates the entire 'If @.Test' block.
Check in Books on Line for the proper 'Style' value (the 101 above.) Look up
CAST and CONVERT and note the 'Style' indicators.
--
Arnie Rowland, YACE*
"To be successful, your heart must accompany your knowledge."
*Yet Another certification Exam
"sparty1022" <sparty1022@.discussions.microsoft.com> wrote in message news:ABD935E6-40A8-4F7
3-9B12-D8B458D824F8@.microsoft.com...
>I am trying to convert a string value, from a parameter field, into a date
to
> insert into a SQL2005 db smalldatetime field. The function returns a bit
> value, which I test by using the isdate function, and if true convert this
to
> a smalldatetime value, else I set to null.
>
> I get error that "Syntax incorrect at @.test".
>
> What is incorrect about what I am trying to do'
>
> ...
> DECLARE @.RecNumber bigint,
> @.AGM1 smalldatetime,
> @.AGM2 smalldatetime,
> @.SDt smalldatetime,
> @.Test bit
> SET NOCOUNT ON;
>
> @.test = dbo.fn_testdate(@.Adv_Met1) ***is something wrong here?
>
> if @.test = 1 then
> @.AGM1 = convert(varchar(10),@.Adv_Met1,101)
> else
> @.AGM1 = null
> end if
>
> Any help is appreciated.|||>> A more structured way, and my prefered way, if you really needed the ELSE
clause, would be: <<
A more **declarative** way and my prefered way, if you really needed
the ELSE
clause, would be:
SET @.AGM1 = CASE WHEN @.test = 1 THEN .. ELSE NULL END;
Why encourage newbies to mimic a 3GL in SQL when you do not have to?|||Thank you
"Aaron Bertrand [SQL Server MVP]" wrote:

> Also a bunch of problems here. I'm going to assume you come from a VB or
> VBScript background?
> IF @.Test = 1 -- there is no THEN with IF in T-SQL
> SET @.AGM1 = ... -- again, need SET or SELECT
> ELSE -- this line was okay!
> SET @.AGM1 = NULL -- you don't really need to do this though, it is
> already NULL!
> -- END IF -- there is no such thing as END IF in T-SQL
> A more structured way, and my prefered way, if you really needed the ELSE
> clause, would be:
> IF @.Test = 1
> BEGIN
> SET @.AGM1 = ...
> END
> ELSE
> BEGIN
> SET @.AGM1 = NULL
> END
> While it makes the code more verbose, I see two benefits:
> (1) you really know where the boundaries of the conditional are, unless yo
ur
> indenting / coding conventions are so bad that a BEGIN/END struct don't
> help.
> (2) if you need to add more statements to the result of a conditional,
> you're already set. I find the lazier syntax leads to unexpected behavior
,
> not sure if people coming from lisp or cobol expect indentation and white
> space to mean more than the code itself, but they can't seem to understand
> why the following always prints 'bar' no matter what the value of @.foo:
> DECLARE @.foo TINYINT;
> SET @.foo = 2;
> IF @.foo = 1
> PRINT 'foo';
> PRINT 'bar'; -- they expect this to run
> -- with BEGIN / END it would be much more intuitive
> IF @.foo = 2
> PRINT 'blat';
>
>|||"--CELKO--" <jcelko212@.earthlink.net> wrote in message
news:1151678883.305430.63220@.p79g2000cwp.googlegroups.com...
> clause, would be: <<
> A more **declarative** way and my prefered way, if you really needed
> the ELSE
> clause, would be:
> SET @.AGM1 = CASE WHEN @.test = 1 THEN .. ELSE NULL END;
> Why encourage newbies to mimic a 3GL in SQL when you do not have to?
Because unlike you, I don't expect them to become SQL gurus overnight. :-)
Let's let them get the syntax figured out, then the optimal way to do
things. Much of this they'll find out on their own, because as you and I
both know, the "experts" don't always agree on the best way to do something.
A

Function required to convert Packed Decimal in binary(6) to int (or float)

I have been given some data from a Mainframe (AS400?) which has some fields coded in Packed Decimal. I have been able to load the data into a SQL2005 database table, but I now need to convert the Packed Decimal data in the binary(6) field to the appropriate integer (or float) value.

The field contains values such as the following:-

0x20202020200C

0x202020022025

0x20202020DFFA

I don't know how to interpret these. Has anyone got a function that can do this for me?

I've read several articles online that explain how packed decimal works, but none tell me how to interpret the last of my three examples. Can you help?

Thanks!each of these is 6 bytes wide, which is too big for int (int is 32bit = 4bytes). you can fit them in bigint though.

to convert to bigint just use convert, eg: convert(bigint, 0x20202020200C)

they are already binary so you don't need to do anything special to convert to binary(6).|||Sorry, but you don't understand. They are encoded as "Packed Decimal" (or Binary-Coded Decimal). In that system 0x123456 translates to the integer (yes, integer!) 123456, although the system is a little more complicated than that, because it has special ways of representing negative numbers and floating-point values).

Function or SP for date conversion

i have a field that date stored in it, format of this date is somethin like timestamp. for example today(9Nov2005) saved as 38665.
how can i convert this value to a normal date format?
any function or sp?i have a field that date stored in it, format of this date is somethin like timestamp. for example today(9Nov2005) saved as 38665.
how can i convert this value to a normal date format?
any function or sp?

SELECT CAST ( 38665 as datetime)

function or formula that convert numbers into words

Hello
I am using crystal report 9. i get total of all item purchsed by customer. what is need a any function or formula that convert numbers into words. i.e 32125 should be converted to thirty two thousand one hundred twenty five only.
With regardsCreate a formula and in forumula section (module) there were so many options like functions conversions etc and in that section look for numbers to text option and using that you can achieve what you are looking for.|||I'm not sure about CR9, but in CR10 you can use the ToWords function.

Fun of INSTEAD OF UPDATE trigger

Hi All,
Here I have a view like this:
create view vw_Lcustkeycode as
select *, convert(bit,0) as IsArchived from dbo.Lcustkeycode
union all
select *, convert(bit,1) as IsArchived from
DataEntryArchive.dbo.aLcustkeycode
I created an INSTEAD OF UPDATE trigger like:
CREATE TRIGGER tr_update_2cols on vw_Lcustkeycode INSTEAD OF UPDATE
AS
BEGIN
if update(UserName) and update(DateModified) begin
update d
set d.UserName=i.UserName, d.DateModified=i.DateModified
from dbo.Lcustkeycode d
inner join inserted i on d.LCustKeycode_id=i.LCustKeycode_id
where i.IsArchived=0
update d
set d.UserName=i.UserName, d.DateModified=i.DateModified
from DataEntryArchive.dbo.aLcustkeycode d
inner join inserted i on d.LCustKeycode_id=i.LCustKeycode_id
where i.IsArchived=1
end
END
When I run following update in Query Analyzer (notice the lcustkeycode_id is
primary key so only 1 row should be affected):
update vw_LCustKeycode
set username='jamma', datemodified=getdate()
where lcustkeycode_id=111060167
It said:
(2 row(s) affected)
(1 row(s) affected)
(8 row(s) affected)
(0 row(s) affected)
(8 row(s) affected)
I check the data and they are correct and really only 1 row was updated, but
why it said so many rows were affected? I find there are no other trigers
sitting there except my instead of trigger.
Can anyone here explain this strange behaviour?
Thanks,
JamesJames Ma wrote:
> Hi All,
> Here I have a view like this:
> create view vw_Lcustkeycode as
> select *, convert(bit,0) as IsArchived from dbo.Lcustkeycode
> union all
> select *, convert(bit,1) as IsArchived from
> DataEntryArchive.dbo.aLcustkeycode
> I created an INSTEAD OF UPDATE trigger like:
> CREATE TRIGGER tr_update_2cols on vw_Lcustkeycode INSTEAD OF UPDATE
> AS
> BEGIN
> if update(UserName) and update(DateModified) begin
> update d
> set d.UserName=i.UserName, d.DateModified=i.DateModified
> from dbo.Lcustkeycode d
> inner join inserted i on d.LCustKeycode_id=i.LCustKeycode_id
> where i.IsArchived=0
> update d
> set d.UserName=i.UserName, d.DateModified=i.DateModified
> from DataEntryArchive.dbo.aLcustkeycode d
> inner join inserted i on d.LCustKeycode_id=i.LCustKeycode_id
> where i.IsArchived=1
> end
> END
> When I run following update in Query Analyzer (notice the
> lcustkeycode_id is primary key so only 1 row should be affected):
> update vw_LCustKeycode
> set username='jamma', datemodified=getdate()
> where lcustkeycode_id=111060167
> It said:
> (2 row(s) affected)
> (1 row(s) affected)
> (8 row(s) affected)
> (0 row(s) affected)
> (8 row(s) affected)
> I check the data and they are correct and really only 1 row was
> updated, but why it said so many rows were affected? I find there are
> no other trigers sitting there except my instead of trigger.
> Can anyone here explain this strange behaviour?
> Thanks,
> James
Look in Profiler and see what it's doing (look at SP:StmtCompleted
events in addition to SQL:StmtCompleted).
David Gugick
Quest Software
www.imceda.com
www.quest.com|||Thanks for your quick reply. Just now I closed Query Analyzer and entered it
again, then the results become:
(1 row(s) affected)
(0 row(s) affected)
(1 row(s) affected)
Seems fine now. I can't explain what happened just now. Even when I set
nocount off, it retuned.
(2 row(s) affected)
(8 row(s) affected)
But now everything is fine.
"David Gugick" wrote:

> James Ma wrote:
> Look in Profiler and see what it's doing (look at SP:StmtCompleted
> events in addition to SQL:StmtCompleted).
> --
> David Gugick
> Quest Software
> www.imceda.com
> www.quest.com
>|||Hello, James
The extra "n row(s) affected" are probably a side effect of the "Show
execution plan" in Query Analyzer. Retry your query with this option on
and off to see if that's the problem.
Razvan